INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT, 1872
1. The Indian Evidence act into force on
a) 06 Oct 1860 b) 01 Mar 1974
c) 15 Mar 1872 d) 01 Sep 1872 Ans:d
2. The Indian Evidence act enacted in
a) 06 Oct 1860 b) 01 Mar 1974
c) 15 Mar 1872 d) 01 Sep 1872 Ans:c
3. The Indian Evidence act 1872
Consists
a)
167 Sections, 11 chapters
b)
511 Sections, 23 chapter
c)
156 Sections, 3 Schedules
d)
None of these Ans:a
4. The Indian Evidence act 1872 was drafted by
a) Sir
James F. Stephen b) Macaulay
c) Lilly d) None of these Ans:a
5. The Indian Evidence act 1872 extends
to
a)
Whole India
b)
Whole India except
Nagaland , tribal area & Jammu
and Kashmir
c)
Whole India
d)
Whole India except Jammu and Kashmir
6. Facts means and include
a)
Any thing, state of things, or
relation of things, capable of being perceived by the senses
b)
Any mental condition of which
any person is conscious.
c)
Both the A and B
d)
Neither A nor B Ans:c(3)
7. Facts can be
(a) Physical facts
(b) Psychological facts
(c) Physical as well as psychological facts
(d) Only physical facts & not
psychological facts. Ans:c
8. The law of evidence consists of
(a) Ordinary rules of reasoning (b) Legal
rules of evidence
(c) Rules of logic (d) All the above. Ans:b
9. Indian Evidence Act applies to
(a) Proceedings before tribunals (b) Proceedings
before the arbitrator
(c) Judicial proceedings in courts (d) All
the above. Ans:c
10.
Law of evidence is
(a) Lex tallienis (b) Lex fori
(c) Lex loci solutionis (d) Lex situs. Ans:b
11.
Law of evidence is
(a) Substantive law (b) An
adjective law
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b). Ans:b
12. Under
the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) Factum probandum
(b) Factum probans
(c) Both factum probandum and factum probans
(d) None of the above. Ans:c
13. Fact
in issue means
(a) Fact, existence or non-existence of which
is admitted by the parties
(b) Fact, existence or non-existence of which
is disputed by the parties
(c) Fact existence or non-existence of which
is not disputed by the parties
(d) All the above. Ans:b
14. Evidence
under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes
(a) Ocular evidence
(b) Documentary evidence
(c) Ocular and documentary evidence both
(d) Ocular evidence based on documents only. Ans:c
15. Mark the correct option
a)
Documents means any matter
expressed or described upon any substance b means of letter, figures or marks.
b)
Words printed, lithographed or
photographed are documents
c)
A map or plan is a document
d)
An inscription on a metal plate or
stone and caricature are documents.
e)
All the above Ans:e(3)
16. Mark the correct option
a)
All statements which the court
permits or requires to be made before it
by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry such statements are
called oral evidence
b)
All documents including
electronic records produced for the inspection of the court called as
documentary evidence
c)
Both the A and B are correct
d)
Neither A nor B are correct. Ans:c
17. After considering the
matters before it, the Court either believes it to exist that fact is said to
be
a) Not proved b) Disapproved
c) Proved d) None of these Ans:c(3)
18. After considering the
matters before it, the Court either believes that it does not exist, or
considers its non-existence that fact said to be
a) Not proved b) Disapproved
c) Proved d) None of these Ans:b(3)
19. A fact neither proved nor
disproved is known
a) Not proved b) Disapproved
c) Proved d) None of these Ans:a(3)
20. Whenever it is provided
by this Act that the Court may presume a fact, it may either regard such fact
as proved, unless and until it is disproved, or may call for proof of it
a) May
presume b) Conclusive proof
c) Shall
presume d) None of these Ans:a(4)
21. Whenever it is directed
by this Act that the Court shall presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as
proved, unless and until it is disproved
a) May
presume b) Conclusive proof
c) Shall
presume d) None of these Ans:c(4)
22. When one fact is declared
by this Act to be conclusive proof of another, the Court shall, on proof of the
one fact, regard the other as proved, and shall not allow evidence to be given
for the purpose of disproving it
a) May
presume b) Conclusive proof
c) Shall
presume d) None of these Ans:b(4)
23. Which
one of the following is not included in expression court under Indian Evidence
Act
a) All
Judges b)
All Magistrates
c) All
persons legally authorized to take evidence d) Arbitrator Ans:d
24. That
there are certain objects arranged in a certain order in a certain place-
a) Is
a fact b) Is an opinion
c) Is
a document d) Is a motive Ans:a(3)
25. A
inscription on metal plate or stone
a) Is
a fact b) Is a document
c) Is
an opinion d) Is a motive Ans:b(3)
26. Which
one of following is a fact
a) Hari
said b) Mohan saw
c) Ram
told a lie d) Any of these Ans:d(3)
27. That
man heard or saw something, it is
a) A
fact b) A document
c) An
evidence d) Done Ans:a(3)
28. That
man has a certain reputation it is
a) An
evidence b) A fact
c) A
document d) All Ans:b(3)
29. Court
includes-
a)
All magistrates and judges
b)
All persons authorized to take evidence
c)
Both the A & B
d)
None of these Ans:c
30. A
map or plan is -
a) A
fact b) A document
c) An
evidence d) Done Ans:b(3)
31. Caricature
is-
a) A
fact b) A document
c) An
evidence d) Done Ans:b(3)
32. Presumption
are given section ____ of Evidence act
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5 Ans:c
33. Which
is not a document?
a) A
man has certain reputation b) Writing
c) Inscription
on a store d) Caricature Ans:a(3)
34. Evidence
includes-
a)
All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it
by witnesses, in relation to matters of face under inquiry.
b)
All documents including electronic record produced for the inspection of
the court
c)
Both the A & B
d)
None of these Ans:c (3)
35. Indian
evidence act includes
a) Oral
evidence b) Documentary evidence
c) Electronic
records d) All the above Ans:d(3)
36. Presumption
under Evidence law are-
a) Presumption
of facts b) Presumption of law
c) Both
the A & B d) None of these Ans:c
37. Which
is not a fact?
a)
That a man said certain words
b)
That a man heard something
c)
That a man has a certain reputation
d)
None of these Ans:d
38. A man holds a certain opinion, has a
certain intention, acts in good faith, or fraudulently or uses a particular
word in particular sense, or is or was at a specified time conscious of a
particular sanction is a-
a) Fact b) Evidence
c) Document d) Fact in issue Ans:a
39. A is accused of the murder of B. At his
trial the following facts may be in issue-
a)
That A caused B’s deaths
b)
That A intended to cause B’s
death
c)
That A had received grave and sudden provocation from B
d)
All the above Ans:d
40. A witness described in detail articles
decorated in room while giving statement before Court this is a
a) Fact b) Document
c) Opinion d) Cause Ans:a
41. In relation to expression defined in
Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act which of the following statement is not
correct
a)
Facts include not only physical fact but also psychological facts
b)
Court includes arbitrators
c)
An inscription on a store is a document
d)
A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor
disapproved
Ans:b
42. Under which of the following provisions
of Evidence act word forming part of same transaction occurs?
a) Section 5 b) Section 6
c) Section 7 d) Section 8 Ans:b
43. The facts though not in issue are so
connected with fact in issue as to form part of same transaction are
a) Relevant under rule of res jestae b) Not
relevant
c) Hear say evidence d) Primary evidence Ans:a
44. Match
List- I and List –II and select the correct answer using code given below lists
List-I
a) Facts
as effect of fact in issue 1) Section9
b) Facts
forming part of same transaction 2) Section 8
c) Fact
which constitute preparation for any fact in issue 3) Section 7
d) facts
necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts 4) Section 6
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 2 3 1 4 Ans:C
45. A is accused of waging war against the
Government of India
a)
They constitute a motive for relevant fact
b)
They show preparation for relevant facts
c)
They are effect of relevant facts
d)
They form part of general transaction Ans:d
46. The question is whether A committed a
crime at Calcutta on a curtain day, fact that on that day A was at Lahore
a)
As a motive for fact in issue
b)
As introductory to fact in issue
c)
As preparation of relevant fact
d)
As it makes existence of fact in issue highly improbable Ans:d
47. Which of the following statement are
correct?
a)
Admissions could be oral only
b)
Admission could be documentary only
c)
Admission could be oral or documentary
d)
None of these Ans:c
48. To what of following rules of relevancy
have been discussed under section 8 of Indian evidence act
a) Motive b) Preparation
c) Previous or subsequent conduct d) All
the above Ans:d
49. The question is whether A committed a crime
at Calcutta on a curtain day, fact that on that
day A was at Lahore
a) Is relevant b) Is irrelevant
c) Is not relevant d) None of these Ans:a
50. Which
is not relevant in section 7?
a) Cause b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) All the above Ans:c
51. Which
is relevant in Section 8?
a) Cause b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) All the above Ans:c
52. A
is accused of murder of B by beating him whatever is said or done by A or B or
by standers at beating or so shortly before or after it as to form part of
transaction is a relevant fact under section-
a) Section
6 b) Section 9
c) Section
12 d) Section 8 Ans:a
53. Which
of the following is not relevant under section 8 of Indian Evidence act?
a) Intention b) Occasion
c) Preparation d) Previous conduct Ans:b
54. Under
section 8 of Evidence Act-
a) Preparation
is relevant b) conduct is relevant
c) Motive
is relevant d) All the above Ans:d
55. In
which of these expert opinion is relevant?
a) Foreign
law b) Finger prints
c) Art d) All the above Ans:d
56. Under
section 7 of Indian Evidence act-
a) Identity
is relevant b) Opportunity
is relevant
c) Introductory
is relevant d) Conduct is relevant Ans:b
57. Which
of the following statement is not relevant in a case where A is tried for
murder?
a)
That A quarreled with dead person three days before incident
b)
That A has purchased a knife one hour before incident
c)
That A is a man of good character
d)
That A is a man of bad character Ans:d
58. Under
section 7 the following are relevant-
a) Occasion b) Cause & effect
c) Opportunity & state of things d) All
the above Ans:d
59. Under
section 8 the following are relevant
a) Motive b) Preparation
c) Previous
conduct d) Subsequent conduct
e) All
the above Ans:e)
60. Relevancy
of facts forming part of same transaction
a)
Whether they occurred at the same time and place
b)
Whether they occurred at the different time and place
c)
Both the A & B
d)
Neither A nor B Ans:c(6)
61. Which
of the following statement is not correct?
a)
No fact of which the court will take notice need be proved
b)
The facts admitted need not be proved
c)
All the facts and contents of documents
d)
Oral evidence must be direct Ans:c
62. Section
56 of Indian evidence act-
a) Fact
of which the court must take judicial notice
b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
c) In
criminal cases previous good character relevant
d) All
the above Ans:b
63. Section
57 of Indian evidence act-
a) Fact
of which the court must take judicial notice
b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
b) Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved
c) In
criminal cases previous good character relevant
d) All
the above Ans:a
64. Fact
admitted need not be proved according to
a) Section
55 b) Section 56
c) Section
57 d) Section 58
65. Under
section 57(1) of Indian Evidence act,
court shall take judicial notice of-
a)
All laws in force in India
b)
All laws including foreign law
c)
All Indian and Asian law
d)
All Indian and British laws up to 1950 Ans:a
66. Court
will take judicial notice of the following -
a)
All laws in force in territory
of India
b)
The accession to office names, titles, functions and signatures of the persons
filling for the time being any public office in any state if the fact of their
appointment to such office is notified in any official gazette.
c)
The commencement continuance and termination of hostilities between the
Government of India and any other state or body
d)
All the above Ans:d
67. Of
which of following fact the court will not take judicial notice?
a)
Common law of Britain
b)
Law of state of Indian
c)
Division of time
d)
Local general customs and tradition of India
68. Fact
which need not be proved explained in ______of Indian evidence act.
a) Part
II, Chapter III b) Part II, Chapter IV
c) Part
III, Chapter II d) Part IV, Chapter V Ans:a
69 Judicial
notice of fact that many blind persons have acquired great academic destinations,
can be taken by court
a) Gowhari Das Vs. Santilata Singh
b) Jai Shankar Prasar Vs. State of Bhihar
c) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
d) None of these Ans:b(57)
70. Implied
admission in written statement cannot be allowed to be withdrawn. However, the plaintiff can be insisted upon
to prove his case
a) Uttam Chand Kothari Vs. Gauri
Shankar Jalan.
b) Jai Shankar Prasar Vs. State of Bhihar
c) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
d) None of these Ans:a(58)
71. The
conduct of an eye witness in non disclosing the incident to anybody for a
number of days. In highly unnatural on and is sufficient to reject testimony
a) Gowhari Das V. Santilata Singh
b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of
Bhihar
c) Ganpat Kndiba Chavan Vs. State of
Maharashtra
d) None of these Ans:c(8)
72. Role
of motive in an offence the case of prosecution becomes more easier to connect
accused to the alleged incident.
a) PV Narayana Vs. State of Andra Pradesh
b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of
Bhihar
c) Afzauddin Ansary V. State of West
Bengal
d) None of these Ans:a(8)
73. When
motive is not sine qua non for proving the prosecution case
a) Gowhari Das V. Santilata Singh
b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of
Bhihar
c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of
Madhya Pradesh
d) None of these Ans:c(57)
74. Which
is not main principle that underlies law of evidence?
a)
The evidence must be confined to matter in issue
b)
Hearsay evidence must be admitted
c)
Hearsay evidence must be admitted
d)
The best evidence must be given cases Ans:c
75. Section
59 of Indian Evidence Act is-
a)
Proof of facts by oral evidence b) Secondary evidence
b)
Oral evidence must be direct d) Proof of contents of documents Ans:a(59)
76. Section
60 of Indian Evidence Act is
a) Proof
of facts by oral evidence b) Secondary evidence
c)
Oral evidence must be direct d) Proof of contents of documents Ans:c(60)
77. Oral
evidence must in all cases whatever be direct that is to say-
a)
If it refers to a fact which could, be seen it must be the evidence of
witness who say he saw it
b)
If it refers to a fact which could be heard, it must be the evidence of
witness who says he heard it
c)
If it refers to a fact which could be perceived by any other sense or in
any other manner it must be evidence of a witness who says he perceived it by
that sense
d)
All the above Ans:d(60)
78. Which
of following is not hearsay evidence?
a)
Statement of police that on basis of inquiry conducted by him that
accused was not at home on night of incident
b)
Report of newspaper
c)
Report prepared on basis of information provided by officer
d)
Statement of witness to prove relationship between persons. Ans:c
79. Oral
evidence explained in
a) Chapter
IV of Evidence Act b) Chapter III of Evidence Act
c) Chapter
V of Evidence Act d) None of these Ans:a
80. Of
documentary evidence explained in
a) Chapter
IV of Evidence Act b) Chapter III of Evidence Act
c) Chapter
V of Evidence Act d) None of these Ans:c
81. The
contents of documents may be proved
a) By
primary evidence b) By secondary evidence
c) Either
A or B d) Neither A nor B Ans:c(61)
82. A
man may lie but a document will never lie in case of
a) Gowhari Das V. Santilata Singh
b) Afzauddin Ansary Vs. State of West Bengal
c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of
Madhya Pradesh
d) None of these Ans:b(61)
83. Admission
of documents amounts to admission of contents but not its truth
a) LIC of india
b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of
Bhihar
c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of
Madhya Pradesh
d) None of these Ans:a(61)
84. Primary
evidence means
a)
Documents itself produced for the inspection of the court
b)
Where a number of documents are all made by one uniform process
c)
Where a document is executed in counterpart, each counter part being
executed by one or more as against executing parties
d)
All the above Ans:d(62)
85. Secondary
evidence means
a)
Certified copies given under provisions hereinafter contained
b)
Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in
themselves insure accuracy of copy
c)
Copies made from or compared with the original
d)
Counterpart of documents as against the parties who did not execute them
e)
All the above Ans:e(63)
86. Proof
of documents by primary evidence defined in sec ____of Evidence Act
a) 62 b) 63
c) 64 d) 65 Ans:c
87. Cases
in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given
a)
When the original is shown or appear to be in the possession or power of
the person against whom the document is sought to be proved.
b)
When the existence, condition or contents of the original have been
proved to be admitted in writing by the person against whom it si proved or by
his representative in interest
c)
When the original has been destroyed or lost and when the original is of
such a nature as not o be easily movable
d)
When the original is public document within the meaning of sec 74
e)
All the above Ans:e)(65)
88. Certified
copy of will is not admissible per se in evidence. It cannot be presumed to be
primary document which could be adduced in evidence and same could be proved
only by leading secondary evidence in case of
a) Sampat Singh Vs. Bhagwanti
b) Jai Shankar Prasar V. State of
Bhihar
c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of
Madhya Pradesh
d) None of these Ans:a(61)
89. Special
provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record and admissibility of
electronic records defined in ______ of evidence act
a) Section
65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B
c) Section
65 d) None of these Ans:a
90. The
following are electronic record
a)
Record which is printed on a paper.
b)
Record which is stored , recorded, or copied in optical or magnetic
media produced by computer
c)
Both A & B
d)
Neither A nor B Ans:c(65b)
91. Provided that such notice
shall not be required in order to render secondary evidence admissible in any
of the following cases, or in any other case in which the Court thinks fit to
dispense with it:--
a) When the document to be proved is
itself a notice;
b) When, from the nature of the case, the
adverse party must know that he will be required to produce it;
c) When it appears or is proved that the
adverse party has obtained possession of the original by fraud or force;
d) When the adverse party or his agent has
the original in Court;
e) All
the above Ans:e(66)
92. Proof
of signature and handwriting defined in
____of evidence act.
a) Section
65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B
c) Section
65 d) Section 67 Ans:d
93. Proof
of electronic signature defined in_____of evidence act
a) Section
65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B
c) Section
65 d) Section 67A Ans:d
94. Mark
the correct option
a) Provided
that it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness in proof of the
execution of any document, not being a will
b) If
no such attesting witness can be found, or if the document purports to have
been executed in the United
Kingdom
c) The admission of a party to an attested
document of its execution by
himself
shall be sufficient proof of its execution as against him,though it be a
document required by law to be attested
d) If
the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the
document, its execution may be proved by other evidence
e) All the above Ans:e(68-71)
95. Digital signature defined in_____of
evidence act
a) Section
65 A,& 65 B b) Section 64 A,& 64 B
c) Section
73A d) Section 73 Ans:c
96. Which
one of the following is not a public document?
a)
An unregistered family settlement
b)
A registered sale deed
c)
Judgment of the high court
d)
Judgment of a Civil Judge Ans:a(74)
97. For
proving execution of a registered will
a)
Be necessary to call at least two
attesting witness
b)
Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
c)
Not necessary to call any attesting witness
d)
Be necessary to call registrar Ans:b
98. When a party refuges to produce a
document which he had noticed to produce?
a)
He cannot use the document as evidence without consent of opposite party
or order of Court
b)
Objection of opposite party is worthless
c)
Order of court not necessary
d)
Document will be deemed to be an admitted document Ans:a
99. Public document under Indian evidence act
can be proved by
a) Certified copy b) Oral evidence
c) Writer of certified copy d) Any of the above Ans:a
100. When
it is not necessary to call certifying writer of the document to prove the
document?
a)
When the document is not a will
b)
When the document is 30 year old
c)
Both the A and B
d)
Neither A nor B Ans:C
101. Maxim
omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta means
a)
All the acts are presumed to be wrongly done
b)
All the acts are presumed to be rightly done
c)
Both the A and B
d)
Neither A nor B Ans:a
102. A
photograph of an original is of its contents though two have been compared, if
it is proved that thing photographed was original-
a) Secondary
evidence b) Primary evidence
c) Primary
and Secondary evidence d0 Oral evidence Ans:a(63)
103. If
digital signature of any subscriber is alleged to have been affixed to an
electronic record, fact must be proved-
a)
That such digital signature is original signature
b)
That such signature is original
c)
That signature is no digital
d)
That signature is digital Ans:a(73A)
104. These
documents are public documents
a)
Documents forming the acts or records of acts of the sovereign authority
b)
Documents forming the acts or records of acts of official bodies
c)
Documents forming the act, records of acts of tribunals
d)
All the above Ans:d(74)
105. Private
documents are given
a) In
section 72 b) In section 73
c) In
secion 74 d) In section 75 Ans:d
106. Presumptions
as to documents are given-
a) Secton
75 to 78 b) Section 78 to 81
c) Section
79 to 90 d) Section 81 to 84 Ans:c
106. The
court shall presume that every document purporting to be a power of attorney and
to have been executed before, and authenticate by
a) A
Notary public
b) Any
court, Judge or Magistrate
c) Consul
or Vice consul, or representative of the Central Government
d) All
the above Ans:d(85)
107. Which
of the following is not a secondary evidence?
a)
Copy prepared from original by mechanical process which has been
compared with original.
b)
Copy prepared from original by mechanical process
c)
Oral evidence of a person about contents of document who has seen
document
d)
Copy prepared from original and compared with it. Ans:c63)
108. In
which of the following cases no notice is required to be given to adverse pary
before producing secondary documentary evidence?
a)
When original is destroyed
b)
When original is immovable
c)
When original is electronic record
d)
When original is in possession of adverse party Ans:d(66)
109. Secondary
evidence of a document are-
a)
The copies made from with original
b)
The document itself produced for inspection of court
c)
Where a document is execute in counter part each counter part being
executed by one, against executors
d)
Where a document is executed in several parts each part Ans:a(63)
110. A
document is said to be in handwriting of A that the document is produced from
proper custody, If the document is purporting or proved to be years old the
court may presume that is in A’s handwriting
a) Thirty b) Fifteen
c) Twenty d) Twelve Ans:a(90)
111. Section
90 A of Indian Evidence Act applies to-
a) Testamentary
documents b) Electronic records
c) None
of these d) Both the A&B Ans:B
112. Presumption
as to electronic records ______years old
a) Thirty b) Twenty
c) Ten d) Five Ans:d(90a)
113. Assuming
that the document is more than thirty years old and comes from proper custody,
there would be no presumption that contents of the same are true
a)
Mohinuddin Vs President , Municipal comity
b)
Shatala Vs. State of maharashtra
c) Yunish alias Kariya Vs. State of
Madhya Pradesh
d)
None of these Ans:a(90)
114. Presumption
of electronic records and signature defined in
a) Section
85b b) Section 85 a
c) Section
85 c d) None of these Ans:a
115. The
function of a court of justice is
a)
To ascertain the existence or non existence of certain facts
b)
To apply the substantive law to ascertained facts
c)
Declare the rights and liability of parties
d)
All the above Ans:d
116. Evidence
means
a) To
show b) To show clearly
c) Ascertain d) Signify Ans:b
117. Oral
testimony of a witness can be
a) Wholly
reliable b) Wholy unreliable
c) Neither
A nor B d) Both the A and B Ans:a
118. Evidence
under the Indian evidence act means and includes
a) Oral
and documentary evidence or both b) Documentary evidence
c) Primary
and circumstantial evidence d) Primary evidence Ans:a
119. The
instruments by which the court is convinced of a fact is called
a) Document b) Evidence
c) Proof d) Witness Ans:b
120. The
power of comparison of handwriting of finger print under section 73 lies with
a) Investigating
officer b) Court
c) Either
A or B d) None of the se Ans:a
121. Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing
or signs shall be deemed to be
(a) Documentary evidence (b) Oral evidence
(c) Neither A nor B (d)
None of these Ans:b
122. Who can take identification parade?
(a) Police officer (b)
Magistrate
(c) Any citizen (d)
Any of these Ans:b
123. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) If an attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the
document, its execution may be proved by primary evidence
(b) If an attesting witness denies or does not
recollect the execution of the document, its execution may be proved by other
evidence
(c) Its execution may be proved by secondary evidence
(d) All the above Ans:b
124. An Act, order or notification of the
State Government may be proved by
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Journals publishing those documents
(c) The records of the departments, certified by the heads of the dept or by
(c) The records of the departments, certified by the heads of the dept or by
any document purporting to be printed by order of the
Government
(d) None of these Ans:c
125. The proceedings of the legislature may be
proved by
(a) Oral evidence
(b) Copy of such proceedings
(c) The journals of those bodies or by published Acts or abstracts or by
(c) The journals of those bodies or by published Acts or abstracts or by
copies purporting to be printed by order of the
Government concerned
(d) None of these Ans:c
125. Q. No. 29 A leading question, without the
permission of the Court, may be asked in ____
(a) Examination-in-Chief (b) At any time
(c) Cross examination (d)
None of these Ans:c
126. Point out the
incorrect answer. Evidence may be
(a) Direct and indirect (b) Primary and secondary
(c) Oral and documentary (d) Procedural and substantive Ans:d
127. If
a document is executed in several parts, each part is ___ of the document
(a) Oral evidence (b) Primary evidence
(c) Secondary evidence (d)
None of these Ans:b
128. Q. No. 43 A copy compared with a copy of
a letter made by a copying machine is ___ evidence of the contents of the letter
(a) Documentary (b) Primary
(c) Secondary (d)
None of these. Ans:c
129. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
(a) Factum probandum (b) Factum probans
(c) Both factum
probandum and factum probans
(d) None of the above. Ans:c
130. Relevancy is
(a) Question of law and
can be raised at any time
(b) Question of law but
can be raised at the first opportunity
(c) Question of law
which can be waived
(d) Question of
procedure which can be waived. Ans:a
131. Which of the
following documents are not admissible in evidence?
(a) Documents
improperly procured
(b) Documents procured
by illegal means
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor
(b). Ans:d
132. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the
transaction(s) in a particular mode, are relevant
(a) Under section 6 of
Evidence Act
(b) Under section 7 of
Evidence Act
(c) Under section 8 of
Evidence Act
(d) Under section 9 of
Evidence Act. Ans:b
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